What determines how things are pronounced and what determines when the pronunciation is changed? I think that when the majority of a country pronounces something one way then that country would be compelled to change the pronunciation to suit. As we have seen in previous posts in this thread latin pronunciation has changed a number of times and I think that the English language too would evolve over time.I assumed it was just because that's how it is spelled. When you're talking about personal ownership of an object, there aren't many people who would say "that object is meen"
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